Throughout a radio transmission to the dispatch center, the EMT periodically uses the term break

An effective and reliable communication system is essential to the EMT and the EMS system because:
A) a decrease in the number of lawsuits has been demonstrated.
B) EMTs are better able to assess patients.
C) the safety of an EMT is guaranteed on a dangerous scene.
D) hospitals can better prepare for the arrival of a patient.

D) hospitals can better prepare for the arrival of a patient.

You have arrived by the side of an 82-year-old male complaining of generalized weakness. After introducing yourself, he states, "My name is Edward Burns, but everyone calls me Eddy." Which one of the following is your most appropriate response?
A) "Well, Eddy, let's see what is going on with you."
B) "Do you want us to call you Eddy as well?"
C) "Okay, Edward. We need to know what hospital you want to go to."
D) "Alright, Mr. Burns. Is it okay if we get your blood pressure?"

B) "Do you want us to call you Eddy as well?"

Which one of the following statements is most appropriate when communicating with the medical facility that will receive the patient?
A) "Inbound with a 52-year-old suffering from a myocardial infarction."
B) "En route with a drug addict who has overdosed on an unspecified amount of heroin."
C) "En route to your facility with a 73-year-old male complaining of dizziness."
D) "Five minutes out with Mr. John Panzer whose blood pressure is up."

C) "En route to your facility with a 73-year-old male complaining of dizziness."

Why is using a standard format for relaying medical information to the emergency department important?
A) The opportunity for forgetting important medical information decreases.
B) The EMS agency can increase its reimbursement from insurance companies.
C) Dispatch is better able to monitor and critique the radio traffic to hospitals.
D) A standard format assists the EMT in maintaining his or her assessment skills.

A) The opportunity for forgetting important medical information decreases.

A patient who was complaining of a headache is being transported to the hospital. After providing a report to the emergency department, the patient begins to seize. The seizure lasts for one minute and then stops. At this time, you are five minutes from the hospital. After providing care for the seizure, your next action should be to:
A) contact family via cell phone and ask is there is a history of seizures.
B) continue care and transport to the hospital.
C) call the hospital and inform them of the seizure.
D) document the seizure on the prehospital care report.

C) call the hospital and inform them of the seizure.

You are returning from a call when you come across an apartment building with flames coming from several windows on the top story. You see several occupants trapped and hanging out of the windows screaming for help. Which one of the following radio transmissions is most appropriate to advise dispatch of the situation?
A) "Central communication, be advised there is a structure fire with people trapped."
B) "Central communications I need the fire department and additional ambulances for a working structure fire on the north side of town."
C) "Central communications from Unit 118, how do you copy?"
D) "Central communications be advised of a working structure fire on Third Street and Raven with occupants trapped."

C) "Central communications from Unit 118, how do you copy?"

An advantage to asking the patient close-ended questions is a(n):
A) ability to get medical information very quickly. B) chance to get a significant amount of information.
C) opportunity to get a detailed response from the patient. D) opportunity for the patient to elaborate about his medical complaint.

A) ability to get medical information very quickly.

You are assessing a patient complaining of shortness of breath. Which one of the following questions would best assist you in getting additional information about the patient's chief complaint?
A) "Have you ever had a myocardial infarction before?"
B) "Did you get diaphoretic when the shortness of breath started?"
C) "You appear to be short of breath. Are you also having chest pain?"
D) "Why did you wait two hours to call for an ambulance?"

C) "You appear to be short of breath. Are you also having chest pain?"

Throughout a radio transmission to the dispatch center, the EMT periodically uses the term "break." You should recognize this to mean he is:
A) requesting more time to transmit. B) awaiting a response from the dispatcher. C) completing his transmission. D) purposely pausing his transmission.

D) purposely pausing his transmission.

Your partner accidentally uses a profane word when talking to dispatch. Which agency has the power to fine him and the ambulance service?
A) Local police department's division of communications B) County Board of Commissioners C) Federal Communications Commission D) Department of Homeland Security

C) Federal Communications Commission

You have arrived at the scene of a medical emergency. As you enter the room where the patient is located, you note him to be sitting up and talking without difficulty. Emergency Medical Responders are on scene and providing basic care for the patient. Which one of the following will you do first?
A) Ask the patient's family if he has any past medical problems.
B) Get the patient's pulse and respiratory rate, along with his blood pressure.
C) Place the patient on your stretcher and transfer him to the ambulance.
D) Get a report from the Emergency Medical Responder.

D) Get a report from the Emergency Medical Responder.

Which one of the following is the most appropriate way to contact a receiving hospital to alert them that you are en route with a patient?
A) "Dr. Jackson, this is EMT Mike Bennet, can you hear me?"
B) "St. Margaret's Hospital, this is BLS ambulance 17-64. How do you copy?"
C) "St. Margaret's, can you take a report on a person with chest pain?"
D) "Inbound with a 76-year-old male complaining of dizziness."

B) "St. Margaret's Hospital, this is BLS ambulance 17-64. How do you copy?"

Your ambulance was dispatched for a patient complaining of shortness of breath at 1512. You arrived on scene at 1523 and left at 1538. You arrived at the hospital with the patient at 1557 and were back in service at 1622. Which one of the following is true?
A) The call took place in the morning. B) The time spent at the hospital was 16 minutes and 22 seconds. C) Your scene time was 15 minutes. D) You arrived on the scene at 5:23 p.m.

C) Your scene time was 15 minutes.

You pull up to the scene of a one-car motor-vehicle collision and find a physician treating the patient. Which one of the following is the best way to initially communicate with the doctor?
A) "Hello, we are EMTs. How can we help you, doctor?" B) "We will be in the ambulance if you need us." C) "The law requires you to let us handle the situation." D) "You can go now. We will take over."

A) "Hello, we are EMTs. How can we help you, doctor?"

You are treating a two-year-old girl who fell off her bike. She is crying and will not answer any of your questions. Which one of the following would be appropriate to find out where the girl hurts?
A) Have the girl's mother ask your questions for you.
B) Sternly tell the girl to answer the questions.
C) Promise the girl a reward like ice cream if she answers the questions.
D) Tell the patient she will be okay if she tells you what hurts.

A) Have the girl's mother ask your questions for you.

Of the following, who has personal protective equipment in place?
A) Emergency Medical Responder with leather gloves and steel-toed boots
B) Firefighter with a self-contained breathing apparatus unit on
C) EMT with gloves, gown, and eye protection
D) All of the above have personal protective equipment in place.

D) All of the above have personal protective equipment in place.

If a scene becomes unsafe after you have entered, you should first:
A) call for assistance on the radio. B) notify the EMS supervisor and medical director. C) attempt to neutralize the threat. D) remove yourself and your crew from the scene.

D) remove yourself and your crew from the scene.

When should the EMT conduct an evaluation of the scene for hazards that can threaten or harm him?
A) Throughout the entire call B) After completing the primary assessment C) Before responding to the call D) Prior to leaving the ambulance

A) Throughout the entire call

You and your partner are first on the scene of a bleacher collapse at a local raceway. As you exit the ambulance, you note several patients seated around debris from the seats. In this situation, which one of the following actions would you perform first?
A) Determine the number of patients. B) Wait for a supervisor to arrive. C) Determine the severity of injuries. D) Notify the local hospitals of a mass-casualty incident.

A) Determine the number of patients.

It is nighttime and you have been dispatched for a vehicle on the shoulder of the interstate with a driver slumped over the steering wheel. When pulling up onto the scene, how should you best position the ambulance?
A) In front of the car with the white strobe lights activated
B) Behind the car with your high-beams on
C) Behind the car with the ambulance wheels turned to the right
D) Next to the car to block one lane of traffic

B) Behind the car with your high-beams on

For the scene of a motor-vehicle collision involving two vehicles, which one of the following actions would be most appropriate in regards to rescuer and patient safety?
A) Turn your back to oncoming traffic so they are aware of your presence.
B) Remove reflective clothing to avoid distracting passing vehicles.
C) Treat the patients between the vehicles so all rescuers can see each other.
D) Place flares 500 feet in each direction from the collision scene.

D) Place flares 500 feet in each direction from the collision scene.

On scene, frantic family members direct you into the basement where their 67-year-old mother has shot herself in the chest with a pistol. She is unresponsive and breathing six times a minute. The gun remains in her hand by her side. What action should you take immediately?
A) Do not touch the patient or gun until the police arrive on scene.
B) Pick up the gun by the edge of the grip and carefully remove it.
C) Leave the gun in her hand and start providing positive pressure ventilation.
D) Determine if the gun contains ammunition and remove it only if it is loaded.

B) Pick up the gun by the edge of the grip and carefully remove it.

A young male playing hockey on an ice-covered pond has been injured and remains on the ice. As you arrive on scene, a park ranger informs you that the ice is 12 inches thick and poses no danger of collapse. In this situation, which one of the following actions would be most appropriate?
A) Apply salt to the ice to provide traction.
B) Take small slow steps to the patient's location.
C) Have a teammate assist the injured player to your location.
D) Place tarps on the ice to walk over to the injured player.

D) Place tarps on the ice to walk over to the injured player.

When would an EMT enter the scene of a crime to provide care to the patient?
A) When the EMS supervisor arrives on scene B) When the police leave the scene C) When all hazards have been addressed D) When the dispatcher informs the crew to enter

C) When all hazards have been addressed

You have been called to a bar full of intoxicated patrons for a 46-year-old man who fell off his stool, injuring his left arm. As you assess his arm, he screams in pain. Several of the patrons get angry and yell for you to give him something for pain. Someone in the back throws a bottle in your direction. What should you do next?
A) Contact medical command for permission to give aspirin as a pain medication.
B) Ignore the yelling and continue to care for the patient as you would anyone else with an extremity injury.
C) Leave the scene and only return when police have made it safe to do so.
D) Inform the angry patrons that you are a medical professional and will care for the patient as you see fit.

C) Leave the scene and only return when police have made it safe to do so.

Which one of the following standard precautions must the EMT take on every call?
A) Gloves and face shield B) Goggles and gown C) Gloves, gown, and goggles D) Gloves

A 67-year-old male patient is experiencing chest pain. His home is located in an extremely "bad" neighborhood. There are vacant homes throughout, including the two homes to either side of the patient's residence. Additionally, parked cars have forced you to park three houses away, making a walk necessary to get to the patient. Which one of the following actions would be most appropriate as you approach the patient's house?
A) Hold a lit flashlight in front of you to illuminate shrubbery and trash cans.
B) Stand in front of the door while knocking to make your presence known.
C) Walk single file with your partner behind you carrying the medical bag.
D) Walk on the sidewalk instead of the grass to ensure steadier footing.

C) Walk single file with your partner behind you carrying the medical bag.

What is the most common potential hazard an EMT faces on scene?
A) Blood and body fluids B) Violent crowds C) Confused patients D) Angry family members

You have been directed to a car that struck another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. You note deformity and starring of the windshield on the driver's side. What should you do to determine if the deformity to the windshield was caused by the driver hitting his head or by the airbags?
A) Assess the patient's head. B) Determine if a seatbelt was used. C) Determine if the airbags deployed. D) Ask the front seat passenger.

A) Assess the patient's head.

When deciding whether or not to transport a patient to the hospital using lights and sirens to the hospital, what information should carry the most weight in your decision?
A) Index of suspicion B) Assessment findings C) Past medical history D) Mechanism of injury

The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:
A) Severity B) Suggestions C) Sign D) Story

When performing the primary assessment of a 45-year-old patient, which one of the following skin findings should concern the EMT?
A) Skin that is warm to the touch B) Cool and moist skin C) Pink color to the nail beds D) One-second capillary refill

A 62-year-old female patient who has been working in her garden has hot, dry skin. You should recognize this as a possible sign of:
A) hypoperfusion. B) stroke. C) cardiac compromise. D) heat exposure.

You are interviewing a prospective candidate for the position of EMT with your service. During the interview, you ask the applicant to describe the purpose of the primary assessment. Which statement best describes that purpose?
A) "Perform an exam focused on the patient's chief complaint."
B) "Identify and treat life-threatening conditions."
C) "To establish a chief complaint and gather the past medical history."
D) "To determine if the patient's vital signs are stable."

B) "Identify and treat life-threatening conditions."

Which one of the following statements made by the EMT indicates that he has appropriately initiated the first phase of the patient assessment?
A) "I have placed an oral airway in the patient." B) "Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg." C) "The scene appears to be free of hazards." D) "Can you tell me why you called the ambulance?"

C) "The scene appears to be free of hazards."

While completing the secondary assessment of a diabetic patient who just had a seizure and is currently unresponsive, the patient starts to experience another seizure. The EMT should:
A) roll the patient onto his side in case he vomits. B) return to the airway and ensure its patency during the seizure. C) place oral glucose between the cheek and gums. D) stop the ambulance and wait for the ALS intercept to arrive.

B) return to the airway and ensure its patency

You are by the side of a 64-year-old male patient who collapsed at home. After assessing the level of consciousness, airway, and breathing, you determine that he is unresponsive with an open airway, but not breathing. What instruction should you immediately give your partner?
A) "Please check his blood pressure and skin temperature."
B) "We will need to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation."
C) "Go ahead and apply the automated external defibrillator."
D) "Let's place an oral airway and start ventilations."

D) "Let's place an oral airway and start ventilations."

You are instructing an Emergency Medical Responder course. One of the students asks you how the head tilt-chin lift airway maneuver works to open the airway. Your response is:
A) "It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat."
B) "It creates an open airway by separating the lips, thus allowing air to enter."
C) "It opens the airway by relaxing and expanding the size of the throat."
D) "It stimulates the patient to begin taking deeper breaths, thus moving air into the lungs."

A) "It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat."

When you are caring for a patient with either a medical complaint or traumatic injury, you should typically perform the reassessment:
A) when a life-threatening condition is found. B) while transporting the patient to the hospital. C) before the secondary assessment. D) immediately following the primary assessment.

B) while transporting the patient to the hospital.

You have completed the primary assessment on a patient who was thrown from a motorcycle, impacting his head and back on the nearby sidewalk. Finding no life threats during the primary assessment, what action should you take first when starting a secondary assessment?
A) Reassess the patient's mental status. B) Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute. C) Re-evaluate the mechanism of injury. D) Ensure that the airway is patent.

C) Re-evaluate the mechanism of injury.

You cannot locate a radial pulse on a 42-year-old male who is alert, confused, and breathing adequately. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
A) Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. B) Check for the carotid pulse. C) Start positive pressure ventilation. D) Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED).

B) Check for the carotid pulse.

The EMT recognizes that for a trauma patient who is alert and oriented, he should obtain the history during what component of patient assessment?
A) Secondary assessment B) Primary assessment C) Scene size-up D) Reassessment

The EMT shows she understands the importance and reason for forming a general impression of the patient when she makes which one of the following statements?
A) "Forming a general impression allows me to fully assess the emergency situation."
B) "The general impression permits a rapid diagnosis of the patient's problem."
C) "The general impression enables me to rule out any life-threatening conditions."
D) "Forming a general impression provides me with a rough idea of the patient's overall status."

D) "Forming a general impression provides me with a rough idea of the patient's overall status."

The EMT is using the OPQRST mnemonic to gather information from a patient with abdominal pain. Which one of the following patient statements is a response to the letter "P" in this memory aid?
A) "I have a past history of asthma." B) "My pulse feels as though it is racing." C) "The pain started about two hours ago." D) "It hurts worse when I take a deep breath."

D) "It hurts worse when I take a deep breath."

A patient has called 911 for abdominal pain and generalized weakness. On arrival you note that the patient's skin is a yellow-orange color. Which one of the following diseases revealed to you during the history would best correlate to this patient's skin?
A) Liver disease B) Stroke C) Lung cancer D) Diabetes

Which of the following is one of the basic five rights of medication administration?
A) Right physician B) Right allergies C) Right EMT D) Right dose

Which one of the following medical emergencies would most likely result in the use of epinephrine by the EMT?
A) Asthmatic episode B) Bee sting C) Cardiac arrest D) Slow heart rate

As a certified EMT, you may assist the patient in taking which one of the following prescribed medications?
A) Blood-pressure-control medications B) Seizure-control medications C) Drugs for heart-rhythm disorders D) Inhalers for difficulty breathing

D) Inhalers for difficulty breathing

A patient with a history of diabetes is slightly confused and irritable. According to family members, he accidentally took too much insulin this morning and did not eat breakfast. Since he is conscious with an intact gag reflex, medical command has ordered you to administer oral glucose. Which one of the following best represents the indication for the medication?
A) Intact gag reflex B) Confusion and irritability C) High blood sugar D) Authorization by medical command

B) Confusion and irritability

Which one of the following is the most reliable source of information about a medication?
A) Emergency department nurses B) Paramedics C) Trade magazines D) Physician's Desk Reference

D) Physician's Desk Reference

The EMT shows she understands the difference between a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) and a small volume nebulizer (SVN) when she states:
A) "The MDI uses a mask to administer the medication; the SVN merely requires the patient to hold the device in his mouth and inhale."
B) "The MDI provides medication with one or two of the patient's breaths; the SVN provides a continuous flow of medication until gone."
C) "The MDI uses oxygen to administer the medication; the SVN does not."
D) "The MDI requires the EMT to set up and prepare the medication for administration; the SVN does not."

B) "The MDI provides medication with one or two of the patient's breaths; the SVN provides a continuous flow of medication until gone."

Which one of the following is the best indication for the administration of oral glucose to a patient who has diabetes?
A) Stroke B) History of diabetes C) Chest pain D) Low blood sugar

After assisting a patient with her EpiPen, she states that it is much easier for her to breathe. However, her heart rate has increased from 92 to 118 beats per minute. In relation to the epinephrine, the EMT recognizes the increased heart rate as a(n):
A) contraindication. B) allergy. C) side effect. D) therapeutic effect.

A patient with severe chest pain hands you a bottle of nitroglycerin. After reading the label, you determine that the medication expired two months ago. You should:
A) withhold the medication and transport. B) administer two of the nitroglycerin tablets. C) administer the nitroglycerin orally. D) place a tablet under the patient's tongue.

A) withhold the medication and transport.

Which one of the following is a generic drug name?
A) Aspirin B) Acetylsalicylic acid C) Atrovent D) Bayer

A medical direction physician gives you a radio order to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain. How should you respond to the order?
A) "Copy. I will administer the medication."
B) "I will re-contact you with any changes in the patient's condition."
C) "Affirmative. The patient has no allergies and I will administer the aspirin orally."
D) "Received. I will administer 81 mg aspirin orally."

D) "Received. I will administer 81 mg aspirin orally."

You have administered Xopenex to a patient, using a small-volume nebulizer. You then notify medical direction that you have administered the drug. This is an example of which type of medical control?
A) Retrospective B) Direct C) On-line D) Off-line

Which one of the following statements shows an adequate understanding of medication administration and dosages?
A) "The proper dose of a medicine should be administered unless medical command orders otherwise."
B) "If the patient is very sick, the dose of a medication can be increased to help the patient recover."
C) "If a patient has chest pain or shortness of breath, the dose of a medication must be increased."
D) "It is best to administer a little less than the required dose to decrease the chance of an allergic reaction."

A) "The proper dose of a medicine should be administered unless medical command orders otherwise."

After assisting a patient using his metered-dose inhaler, the patient's son asks why his father cannot take the medication in the form of a pill. Which one of the following responses is most appropriate?
A) "It would be best if you asked the doctor because I am not allowed to answer that question."
B) "There are only a few medications that come in the form of a pill."
C) "Your father could take this medication by spraying it under his tongue. Why don't you talk to his doctor?"
D) "By giving the medication directly to the lungs, the effect is more immediate."

D) "By giving the medication directly to the lungs, the effect is more immediate."

You are by the side of an alert and oriented 56-year-old male patient complaining of a pounding headache and generalized weakness. His pulse rate is 104, respirations are 18, and blood pressure is 218/110 mmHg. He has a history of high blood pressure for which he takes the anti-hypertensive Zestril. He states that he has not taken the Zestril for two weeks and hands you the container filled with the medication. Which one of the following should you do next?
A) Assist the patient in taking the Zestril. B) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. C) Do not administer any medication. D) Contact medical direction to request an order for Zestril.

C) Do not administer any medication.

As you approach a patient, you observe dark blood on his shirt. He appears confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do first?
A) Assess his airway. B) Apply oxygen. C) Treat for shock. D) Cut his pants.

You believe that a patient who has been shot in the lower abdomen is bleeding internally and is in the early stage of shock. Which one of the following indicates appropriate prehospital care of this patient?
A) Oxygen therapy and warm packs to the abdomen
B) Oxygen therapy and rapid transport to the hospital
C) Semi-Fowler's position and direct pressure over the injury site
D) "Shock" position and administration of water by mouth

B) Oxygen therapy and rapid transport to the hospital

A 62-year-old female is in cardiac arrest. Which one of the following statements made by an Emergency Medical Responder would best help you decide whether to immediately use the AED or continue with CPR?
A) "She has an internal pacemaker and defibrillator." B) "She took a nitroglycerin pill an hour ago." C) "She has been down for about two minutes." D) "She has a history of heart attacks."

C) "She has been down for about two minutes."

Which one of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock?
A) Poor transfer of oxygen at the capillary level B) Loss of blood in the urine C) Blood clots in the lungs D) Infection throughout the body

C) Blood clots in the lungs

An unrestrained 37-year-old female is in cardiac arrest after striking a tree head-on at a high rate of speed. Assessment reveals her to have suffered massive blunt trauma to the chest and abdomen. The patient is quickly extricated from the vehicle and placed on a long board for immobilization. It is estimated that the patient has been in cardiac arrest for approximately 10 minutes, during which CPR was not performed. At this time, the EMT would:
A) apply electrodes to the patient's chest and follow the AED's instructions.
B) withhold CPR and perform a focused trauma assessment.
C) administer CPR for two minutes prior to applying the AED.
D) perform CPR and contact medical command for permission to use the AED.

D) perform CPR and contact medical command for permission to use the AED.

Which one of the following statements should reinforce an EMT's suspicion that a patient is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock?
A) "I have had diarrhea for the past two weeks."
B) "My chest is really hurting. It feels like my last heart attack."
C) "I have been coughing up green mucus and feel weak."
D) "I am allergic to peanuts, and I think I ate some."

A) "I have had diarrhea for the past two weeks."

You have been called for an elderly male patient who suddenly collapsed. On scene you find an 82-year-old man lying on the garage floor. Assessment reveals him to be unresponsive and not breathing. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
A) Determine the "down time." B) Check for a carotid pulse. C) Apply the AED. D) Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

B) Check for a carotid pulse.

A driver was ejected from his vehicle in a rollover-type collision. Assessment findings include unresponsiveness and bruising to the abdominal and pelvic areas along with an open femur fracture. The patient has an open airway and is breathing at 32 times per minute. The skin is cool and clammy and the radial pulses are weak. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following is the EMT's initial intervention?
A) Apply a cervical collar. B) Assist respirations. C) Examine the fracture site. D) Obtain a blood pressure.

You are transporting an unresponsive 31-year-old female patient who suffered cardiac arrest. On scene Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) shocked her once with the AED and she regained a pulse. She remains unresponsive and is breathing shallowly. Ventilations are being provided with a bag-valve mask. An EMR has agreed to ride to the hospital with you to provide assistance in caring for the patient. Which one of the following instructions given to the EMR is most appropriate?
A) "Please check her breathing and pulse every five minutes."
B) "Place her on a nonrebreather with 15 liters per minute of oxygen."
C) "Place her in the recovery position so her airway is clear if she vomits."
D) "Leave the AED on her, even though she is breathing and has a pulse."

D) "Leave the AED on her, even though she is breathing and has a pulse."

Why is defibrillation in the first few minutes of cardiac arrest so critical?
A) In the first few minutes of cardiac arrest the heart is still warm, but begins to cool rapidly making it less receptive to a defibrillatory shock.
B) In the first few minutes of cardiac arrest, the blood pressure is still normal, but will drop quickly, making successful defibrillation less likely.
C) Research has shown that a heart in cardiac arrest will continue to pump blood for a few minutes before cardiac output drops to zero.
D) If cardiac arrest is not treated within the first few minutes, ventricular fibrillation will convert to asystole, a non-shockable heart rhythm.

D) If cardiac arrest is not treated within the first few minutes, ventricular fibrillation will convert to asystole, a non-shockable heart rhythm.

You are transporting a patient in cardiac arrest. The AED is being used and a shock has been advised. Prior to administering the shock, what should you do?
A) Ensure that no rescuer is touching the stretcher.
B) Stop the ambulance and have all rescuers exit prior to shocking with the AED.
C) Move the patient from the metal stretcher to a nonmetal surface.
D) Withhold all shocks because metal will conduct the shock into the ambulance.

A) Ensure that no rescuer is touching the stretcher.

The major categories of shock include:
A) hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive, and hypovolemic.
B) hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.
C) hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive.
D) burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic.

B) hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.

At an in-service on shock, the presenter asks if anyone can tell him something about irreversible shock. Which statement made by an EMT is correct?
A) "If the pupils are dilated, the patient is in irreversible shock."
B) "Even with treatment, if shock has reached the irreversible stage, death will result."
C) "To survive, the patient in irreversible shock needs a large amount of IV fluids."
D) "In irreversible shock, the carotid pulse is weak, but the radial pulse is strong."

B) "Even with treatment, if shock has reached the irreversible stage, death will result."

Which one of the following statements about the heart rhythm of ventricular fibrillation is true?
A) "The AED is designed to identify ventricular fibrillation and give a 'No Shock Advised' message when it is present."
B) "Ventricular fibrillation occurs when the heart rate is so slow and weak that a pulse cannot be felt."
C) "The most effective treatment for converting ventricular fibrillation to a healthy heart rhythm is CPR."
D) "When a patient's heart is in ventricular fibrillation, it is unable to pump blood throughout the body."

D) "When a patient's heart is in ventricular fibrillation, it is unable to pump blood throughout the body."

After two cardiac arrests, a large home improvement center has purchased a fully automated AED. You have been asked to provide education on its use. During an instructional session, a student asks you what will happen when the AED indicates that a shock is indicated. Your response should be:
A) "You will need to press the shock button." B) "You will need to reanalyze the heart rhythm." C) "The AED will automatically shock the patient." D) "The AED will prompt you to recheck the pulse."

C) "The AED will automatically shock the patient."

When interviewing a patient with a medical emergency the EMT is using the technique of summary when she says?

Which of the following is an effective way to improve communication with most patients?

When interviewing a patient from another culture the EMT should keep in mind each of the following tips except?

What would be considered an objective patient assessment finding?